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We had a discussion thread roughly similar to this one a few years ago on the other discussion forum for California gun nuts.
That thread discussed the circumstances of a California resident who purchased on off-roster handgun from a gun auction site, and then sought advise as what to do when he learned that a California FFL could not transfer it to him.
His first effort was to rescind the sale and get his money back, but the seller had a "No Refund" policy that was stated in the listing.
A lot of the comments focused on the differences between "ownership" and "transfer" as those terms pertain to firearms. The net conclusion was that the gent was now the owner (which was permitted by law and the circumstances) of a firearm that he could not legally take possession of. The same may be true in the case being discussed here.
Many of the prior postings seem to assume that the fact that a person has been denied by DOJ equates to their being a prohibited person, and infer that buyer is to be faulted for attempting the purchase. I've been through enough faulty criminal history returns from DOJ to believe otherwise. A lot of errors result from folks having a common name with a prohibited person (and this becomes even more profound when dealing with hyphenated hispanic names), or where there is an incomplete record (like a gent who got arrested 20 years ago and the court clerk didn't enter a disposition into the record).
That thread discussed the circumstances of a California resident who purchased on off-roster handgun from a gun auction site, and then sought advise as what to do when he learned that a California FFL could not transfer it to him.
His first effort was to rescind the sale and get his money back, but the seller had a "No Refund" policy that was stated in the listing.
A lot of the comments focused on the differences between "ownership" and "transfer" as those terms pertain to firearms. The net conclusion was that the gent was now the owner (which was permitted by law and the circumstances) of a firearm that he could not legally take possession of. The same may be true in the case being discussed here.
Many of the prior postings seem to assume that the fact that a person has been denied by DOJ equates to their being a prohibited person, and infer that buyer is to be faulted for attempting the purchase. I've been through enough faulty criminal history returns from DOJ to believe otherwise. A lot of errors result from folks having a common name with a prohibited person (and this becomes even more profound when dealing with hyphenated hispanic names), or where there is an incomplete record (like a gent who got arrested 20 years ago and the court clerk didn't enter a disposition into the record).
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